Adjudication question

[u/3ofCups]

My husband and I moved because I got a promotion that required relocation. We both worked for the same company, but the company did not have a position available to him in the new area, so he quit to follow me for work. We thought this would be a fairly straight forward case, but it got hit with an adjudication.

I suppose our case is somewhat unique. I got the promotion 2 weeks before giving birth, then moved and started working full time about 7 weeks after baby's birth. My husband collected PFML for 12 weeks. Because he was on PFML, our notice period was shorter (1 week instead of 2), but his last day worked was actually shortly before the baby was born.

We have childcare lined up and our son is enrolled, so his availability is wide open and we've been applying for jobs in excess of the minimum required amount.

But we literally need NEED some income until he finds work in our new area. He has experience in janitorial, manufacturing, and food service, and an education is air craft assembly. So we're applying for jobs related to those areas.

Did we do something wrong? On the application, we attached the lease and job offer letter I received showing our timelines... Is there anything we can do to facilitate the approval (legally of course)? Should we call? If so, what should we say?

[u/SoThenIThought_]

So he quit his last job while on FMLA, you now have childcare. So on his initial application did he marked that he quit?

Is the reason that he filing for unemployment that he quit due to the medical leave or due to the relocation? (I'm not clear on the time frame between when the relocation happened and when he quit while on medical leave - The laws about quitting for relocation are dramatically different than those for quitting for an illness or disability)

[u/3ofCups → u/SoThenIThought_]

He quit because of relocation. We had child care set up in our old home area and he was set to return to work 12/4. Our child care in the new area begins 12/18- however, because his career field can work non standard business hours, we put that he’s eligible to return to work immediately.

But yes, quit was due to relocation. We relocated due to my job. We are married.

Edit: he did mark that he quit

[u/SoThenIThought_ → u/3ofCups]

When he notified his employer that he quit, did he give a reason? If so, did he tell the employer in his resignation that he was quitting due to the relocation or due to the FMLA/childcare issue? (This may seem preemptive but I want to make sure that we are on the same page because I don't want the employer to respond to ESD's job separation request for information and attach an email that says that he was quitting for medical leave issue, which would severely undermine the relocation argument that we're about to be making under a specific state law)

[u/SoThenIThought_ → u/SoThenIThought_]

a specific state law

https://app.leg.wa.gov/RCW/default.aspx?cite=50.20.050

(iii) The claimant: (A) Left work to relocate for the employment of a spouse or domestic partner that is outside the existing labor market area; and (B) remained employed as long as was reasonable prior to the move;

And

https://app.leg.wa.gov/WAC/default.aspx?cite=192-150-110

(2) You may show good cause to quit work if you relocate for your spouse or domestic partner's employment that was due to a mandatory military transfer if:

(a) Your spouse or domestic partner's new duty station is outside your existing labor market; and

(b) You continued to work for your previous employer for as long as was reasonable prior to the move.

Here's the last conversation I had on this particular law/job separation reason (It was back on November 9th so I will need to go through all my replies, it was with u/spacemarine3 And I have done about 1,000 replies since then)